this post was submitted on 07 May 2025
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No need to name names or sources.

Mine has to be some dude that insisted that advertising is a "30,000 year old technology"

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[–] [email protected] -2 points 2 days ago* (last edited 1 day ago) (1 children)

Confirmed: couldn't even search females in lemmy. Disregards common classified ads. Claims "bad faith" while ignoring evidence in bad faith.

Why would I?

Because the claim is empirical, and yours violates plain observation?

[–] [email protected] 3 points 2 days ago* (last edited 2 days ago) (1 children)

Searching random websites is anecdotal, not actual statistics

[–] [email protected] 0 points 2 days ago* (last edited 1 day ago) (1 children)

Statistics aren't needed to reject an overgeneralization. On the contrary, you would need something like statistical generalization: you're (over)generalizing the meaning of a word. Any counterexamples suffice to defeat a bad generalization, since no sample should contradict a true generalization: look it up or take introductory logic.

You're overgeneralizing, and only asserting your claim doesn't begin to meet the burden to support that. In contrast, I've indicated evidence exists & where it's readily found, which you ignore. Ignoring evidence that doesn't suit you is a fallacy (often committed in bad faith).

The fact remains that counterexamples to your claim are common, which wouldn't be expected if the conventional meaning were derogatory.

Here's an example quoting a story in the news:

“What if I would have been armed,” she said. “You’re breaking in. What am I supposed to think? My initial thought was we were being robbed—that my daughters, being females, were being kidnapped. You have guns pointed in our faces. Can you just reprogram yourself and see us as humans, as women? A little bit of mercy. […]"

So your claim is that by referring to her daughters as females, this mother is insulting them?

While I might be able to argue in "bad faith", the unsolicited speech productions of the community do not. Do you want to ignore more examples?

[–] [email protected] 2 points 2 days ago (1 children)

I see no link to a study or anything, so nothing new

[–] [email protected] -1 points 2 days ago* (last edited 1 day ago) (1 children)

Counterexamples don't require studies: learn logic.

Refuting the claim "men are generally bald" merely requires the existence of a few men who aren't. You're claiming "female is a derogatory noun to humans": as shown it isn't. Can you explain what the mother quoted in the news is saying about her daughters if your claim about female is true? No, your claim fails.

Deny plain observation all you want: your claim is false.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 2 days ago (1 children)

You have yet to show that it isn't derogatory, so far you just have your own oppinion.

Thus you are wrong.

Now I do see that you are registered at lemmynsfw.com, generally I would not hold your instance against you if you make a resonable argument in good faith, but based on your creepy attitude and fixation with derogatory/demeaning terms combined with your instance of choice tells me that this is a kink, which is fine if done with consent, but you are pushing your kink on others outside of spaces where it is accepted.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 day ago* (last edited 1 day ago) (1 children)

You have yet to show that it isn’t derogatory, so far you just have your own oppinion.

Examples have been given, so it's not opinion: it's plain observation which you're denying.

Where's your evidence? You've only given an overgeneralization

that is derogatory

and questionable speculation (not observational evidence) that doesn't support it.

It is often used to dehumanize women, as the term is mostly used when talking about animals.

Even if a term often dehumanizes, does it follow that the term itself is derogatory (especially if common uses often don't dehumanize)?

The speculation poses generalizations on observable phenomena.

  1. If a term is mostly used to talk about animals, then it's dehumanizing.
  2. Noun female is mostly used to talk about animals.

Some problems with that: where's your observational, generalizable support for any of it? (Empirical generalizations need that type of support.) Is 2 even true & how would you show that?

Does your overgeneralization withstand observation? No: if it did, then the example given & other refuting instances wouldn't be easy to find.

What is an empirical claim that fails to account for observable reality? Worthless.

Outright denying observations that conflict with your claim/pretending they don't exist is part confirmation bias & part selective evidence fallacy. Try respecting logic & choosing tenable claims that can withstand basic observation.

FYI Linguistics and much of science rely on methods other than statistics. Classical & relativistic physics were developed without it. Planetary observations rejecting geocentrism didn't involve statistics. Much of linguistics is detailed observation & analysis of language samples to identify patterns and rules, so good luck finding statistical studies to support your claims.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 day ago (1 children)

lol, just because you post a long comment with links to Wikipedia, doesn't mean that you are right.

[–] [email protected] 0 points 1 day ago (1 children)

No, logic does that: showing everyone else you're wrong is just icing.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 day ago (2 children)

lol.

You have done nothing of the sort.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 3 hours ago

You're entitled to be wrong & deny reality. Everyone is entitled dismiss your position.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 day ago

Well, your argument at the moment seems to be purely based on your opinion on on the fact that someone people do use the term in a derogatory sense, but this absolutely doesn't translate to "it is generally used" as such.

The argument of the other person seems to be grounded on the empirically easily verifiable point that you can find plenty of non derogatory uses of the word in mainstream media, which is a solid argument against the word being "generally used" in a derogatory way.

In fact, I believe your argument really is "incels and others in the manosphere use this word as a derogatory term, and using this word can associate the user with them, hence I don't use it and I don't recommend to use it". Which is a perfectly fine position, which I personally disagree with, but that doesn't rely on a distortion of reality and is a consequence of a personal political choice (that I respect fully).