this post was submitted on 28 Jun 2025
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[–] [email protected] 17 points 16 hours ago* (last edited 16 hours ago) (4 children)

Must be dumb friends. The answer is no.

A warrant isn't permission from the owner, or anyone inside the house.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 13 hours ago (1 children)

But what is ownership? Ownership is the society-recognized right to the exclusive use of property. But society establishes certain limitations on those rights, including requirements to allow the lawful access by law enforcement to the property.

You intrinsically give law enforcement permission to access property if they have a warrant. It's just part of the bargain of land ownership.

[–] [email protected] 2 points 12 hours ago

I can see how this mere question can end friendships...

[–] [email protected] 2 points 13 hours ago (2 children)

What if you're renting? What if the house was appropriated? What if there's a land dispute? What if the land was appropriated? What if it fall under imminent domain? What if it's split ownership? What if there's a dissociative personality involved?

There's so much to be straight up dismissive as "they're dumb friends".

[In the US] A warrant is permission from the representative of a governmental entity that is ultimately in charge of the land and could legally take it from you, so if theydo take it from you, do you still own it? Even if you can't get it back? By that logic does the US own any of the land, since it was first the land of a different peoples?

[–] [email protected] 1 points 9 hours ago

All of those things (Landlords, disputed owners, etc.) don't apply if they aren't in the house.

This is really that simple.

[–] [email protected] 3 points 13 hours ago

Ability to seize isn't the act of seizure nor by that definition is any land owned because most everything has been taken by force at some point.

Renting wouldn't change anything unless they got permission from the owner.

[–] [email protected] 0 points 14 hours ago (1 children)

Actually the answer is yes, you mention ownership as a key thing for your logic. Hence ownership is transferred to owners, managers of managers, bosses of bosses, etc. Hence yes they would be allowed.

You however misunderstand the implications of vampires. Vampires are essentially a criticism of the old who have lived to long, grown withered and cold. Husks of man with no life or soul left to gleam joy.

However they still don the mask of man and must weave within society. They are bound to be polite as they are not to arouse alarm, the alarm will be the corpse they leave behind. The youth they have sapped and the decrepit infection he has implanted.

Come on man, seems like an obvious metaphor for old men being polite and exploiting young women for the sake of 'new blood' or allusions to virginity. The yes is not about ownership, it is about concent.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 9 hours ago

If the owner isn't in the house, then they don't have any right to give permission.

Vampires don't care about mortal laws.

[–] [email protected] 9 points 15 hours ago (1 children)

but it's a cop so likely won't be following the rules even for a vampire

[–] [email protected] 2 points 9 hours ago

Lol, well you have a point there.