this post was submitted on 22 May 2025
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Yes, I guess what I’m asking is are we pretending that this “conditioning” isn’t a real thing? I also read recently (sorry if this is wrong) that there was a study done on arousal of breasts between societies where they are covered up vs where they are not. It found the level of arousal remained consistent.
If women everywhere suddenly felt that men showing their faces was arousing, should they be required to cover that too?
I’m sorry but I don’t feel that’s a reasonable hypothetical. Society would be so different in so many ways if that were true that the time line would look completely different, who know we probably wouldn’t have made it to now. And yes hypothetically if this did happen all of a sudden there would be lots of calls to do something about the new situation
Why wouldn't having to deal with that arousal be the problem and responsibility of the aroused instead of, by default and preemtively, limiting the rights of any prospective and involuntary "arousee" in existence?
If arousal isn’t a real thing and it’s the fault of the person being aroused, would that suggest total nudity should be ok as well?
Remember this whole discussion is about discrimination. So what you're asking is "In context where full male body nudity is arbitrarily deemed acceptable, why wouldn't full female body nudity be acceptable as well?"
And the answer, of course, is that there's no reason to make a distinction.
Some of these users are unironically repeating rape cultural word for word and in this case with the add on of "I'm just asking questions". Thanks for sticking it to them. =)