this post was submitted on 19 Feb 2024
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No Stupid Questions

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Why do some languages use gendered nouns? It seems to just add more complexity for no benefit.

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[–] [email protected] 35 points 7 months ago (3 children)

It's a thing that can happen as more complex case ending systems like Latin lose audible distinctions over time.

You might think that'd just result in linguistic gender being skipped in favor of no case endings altogether like English, but that's not why English is theorized to have nixed gender.

Linguists have started to theorize that the Danelaw is what killed english grammatical gender, as old English and Old Norse were similar-ish languages at the time with a decent level of mutual intelligibility, but the big sticking point would have been disagreements on grammatical gender between the two languages. So the theory goes that inhabitants of the Danelaw just kinda stopped using it to facilitate less confusing mutual conversation when interacting with a speaker of the other language, and eventually that innovation spread south with the unification of the seven kingdoms into England.

What this tells us is that given a language with grammatical gender, it takes a very narrow set of circumstances to facilitate the conditions where a group might naturally innovate genderless communication.

What's actually kinda interesting is that Esperanto is having a moment like this, while technically you are to use the pronouns Li and Sxi, for he and her, Duolingo has a lot of the use of Si, which is a singular they, and since a lot of esperanto's modern speakers are duolingo users, a lot of folks are just using si.

[–] [email protected] 2 points 6 months ago

What’s actually kinda interesting is that Esperanto is having a moment like this, while technically you are to use the pronouns Li and Sxi, for he and her, Duolingo has a lot of the use of Si, which is a singular they, and since a lot of esperanto’s modern speakers are duolingo users, a lot of folks are just using si.

I speak Esperanto for 14 years now. And no, "si" is not a singular "they". That's a self-referencing pronoun. And if that usage is used for genderless addressing a person then this is simply incorrect usage, because people don't know how actually the language works. It's used in sentences like "li lavis sin" vs. "Li lavis lin". The first one says "he washes himself" and the second says "he washes him", the first references the person who executes the action to reference and the second says that the action is done on a different person.

If it comes to Esperanto and genderless usage then there ĝi (it) or ri (they). The first one would be more in accordance with the fundament of the language and the second is a new pronoun which is around since at least the 70s.

No need to misuse si.

[–] [email protected] 5 points 7 months ago

Awesome answer.

I came here for NoStupidQuestions, but was blessed with AskLinguists! Haha

[–] [email protected] 3 points 7 months ago (1 children)

it takes a very narrow set of circumstances to facilitate the conditions where a group might naturally innovate genderless communication.

Do you know more about how does that work with languages that have had no gender to begin with? Hungarian for example has had no gendered nouns or pronouns for the past millennia.

[–] [email protected] 4 points 7 months ago* (last edited 7 months ago)

If other Uralic languages are genderless I'd imagine it's just always been that way as far as can be reconstructed, otherwise I'd need to know more about the development of the Hungarian language from before the conquest of the Pannonian basin, because I'd imagine that you'd find the answers there if at all.

I also don't presume that genderless language has to evolve from gendered language, I was just pointing out that that's how it happened with English, a lot of east asian languages don't have grammatical gender for example and I'm like 99% sure that happened without a Danelaw scenario necessitating it to avoid fights breaking out over misgendering the nice silk everyone was admiring.

[–] [email protected] 12 points 7 months ago

The simple answer I'm seeing on a quick review is that it is a way to simplify the complexity of the many possible nouns that could be uttered.

"LA pap"
"LE pep"

These are imaginary words but the articles will help distinguish them from each other for a native speaker. They sound similar but I know it was "pap" and not "pep" because I also heard "la".

Also, gender is just ONE of the many possible dimensions used by noun classes in language. There are also things like size and animate/inanimate that are used by languages.

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Noun_class

[–] [email protected] 4 points 7 months ago (1 children)

I am quite disappointed. I also think same exact question as my native language is not gender based. I expect to see answers based on studies or research. Much that I see here are opinions. Lemmy doesn't seem to have subject matter experts.

[–] [email protected] 4 points 7 months ago

Takes time. Reddit took a decade or more to get to that point.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 7 months ago

Él, ella, elle Yes now there's 3 of them

[–] [email protected] 3 points 7 months ago* (last edited 7 months ago) (1 children)

Robwords has an interesting video on this subject.

https://youtu.be/bKaVI-IStNE

[–] [email protected] 3 points 7 months ago* (last edited 7 months ago)

That was interesting, but I think this explains it a bit better.

https://m.youtube.com/watch?v=ljrtQtj4BOM&pp=ygUbTGluZ3Vpc3RpY3MgbGFuZ3VhZ2UgZ2VuZGVy

ETA: Good wikipedia article: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grammatical_gender

ETA: Lots more info, including interesting papers:
https://duckduckgo.com/?q=linguistics+grammatical+gender&ia=web

[–] [email protected] -1 points 7 months ago (1 children)

Ever read 1984? They make a great case for simpler language!

[–] [email protected] 3 points 7 months ago

That is doubleplus ungood!

[–] [email protected] 0 points 7 months ago
  • Wregarrd Hun moosh.
  • Non, non. On dit UNE mouche
  • wow you got quite good eyes.
[–] [email protected] 1 points 7 months ago

if i'm not mistaken, the explanation fpr portuguese is that latin didn't had gendered nouns, you had it, she, he, basically, but in the evolution it and he got merged, so we have she and he, i can be totally wrong tho

[–] [email protected] 10 points 7 months ago (4 children)

Because everyone knows the sun has a penis and the moon has a fanny

[–] [email protected] 2 points 7 months ago
  • Ten (he) mesiac (moon)
  • To (it) slnko (sun)

We got neutral genders in Slovak as well.

For example

  • Tá žena (that (she) woman)
  • To dievča (that (it) girl)
  • Ten chlap (that (he) man)

It all depends on how the word sounds and changes when you say it in different ways (skloňovanie / bending the word).

And we also got 4 patterns for each gender based on which how the word changes so you get over 20 combinations on how to say word in each gender.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 7 months ago

pop nob in fanny

[–] [email protected] 8 points 7 months ago

In German it's the opposite.

[–] [email protected] 3 points 7 months ago

Not in lotr world. There its the opposite, with the male moon chasing the 'flaming hot' female sun across the skies.

Flaming hot is my addition but its kinda remarkably fitting : )

[–] [email protected] 3 points 7 months ago

Languages don't care about complexity. Look at Polish. It's like it makes things complex on purpose. Language evolution is not only about simplifying thing. It's also about conveying meaning and will adapt to the culture that uses it.

[–] [email protected] 3 points 7 months ago

Ok it strange thing that we call them gender. It goes back ancient greek.

Really what Spanish does is put all nouns into 2 groups, the A group and the O group. Then you have rules like el goes on o nouns and la goes on a nouns.

these evolve out of more complex classifier sysyems with many more categories. There is a podcast called lexicon vally that goes over this more details.

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