this post was submitted on 17 May 2025
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I'm very skeptical of arguments that there is voter suppression of minorities based on reasoning like:
since there could be another variable which, once controlled for, causes this difference to disappear. This article seems to be assume the reader has no understanding of statistics.
This is much more self-evidently indicative of voter suppression, in my opinion:
But could this be explained by another variable, like higher crime rates in black-majority counties leading to a necessity for increased security? I don't understand why this measure would cause a 90% decrease in drop-box balloting either. This article has a lot of red flags for me -- it's not actually explaining the reason for any of these measures, so it's implying there is no reason for these measures except for voter suppression of minorities. Obviously that is not the rationale which those who implemented these measures would give publicly.