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Why was France able to revert fairly quickly back into a dictatorship of the Bourgeoisie after the restoration of the Bourbon monarchy while the soviet union hasn't been able to do the same? (lemmygrad.ml)

submitted 5 days ago by [email protected] to c/[email protected]

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(Obviously I mean a restoration of a proletarian dictatorship in the case of the USSR/former constituent states)

Just from what I can quickly gleam from my limited knowledge of the reign of Louis XVIII and Charles X it sounds decently similar to what occured with post soviet russia.

counter revolutionary ruler is incompetent and authoritarian

conflict between reactionary ruler and progressive legislature

reactionary ruler rigs elections and gets involved in foreign wars

reactionary ruler dissolves progressive legislature and appoints their own loyalist legislature

But why was it that the French restored the Bourgeois dictatorship under the citizen king but the Russians and other post soviet states (save for Belarus if you follow the same line of thinking of Cheng Enfu) were unable to? Was it size? Foreign interference?

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[–] [email protected] 0 points 4 days ago

Oh i should also mention the 1991 august coup. They did try to take power back. The issue was that at that point outside of a full blown civil war it wasn't going to happen. I imagine Yanayev recognized this, and decided against it. Especially since he was lacking in popular support from what I've read. Should they have pushed the issue? Fully committed? Maybe. Its not an easy decision to make.