this post was submitted on 14 May 2025
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me_irl

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[–] [email protected] 1 points 9 hours ago (1 children)

The inclusion of a clause about something being "able to be dry" is an arbitrary inclusion specifically meant to exclude water itself, not based on how we use the word, but based on a facile desire to force the definition to fit the way you think it should.

Source?

English is my native language. The phrase "water is wet" is ubiquitous for a reason. I'll happily link to a particular dictionary, if you promise not to accuse me of cherry-picking.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 9 hours ago* (last edited 9 hours ago) (1 children)

I found this, but it looks like it's referring to Old English, not modern, unless I'm misunderstanding. Do you have another source? Just curious at this point; I always considered the "water is wet" thing to just be a common misunderstanding of the actual meaning of the word.

EDIT: It looks like it's referring to origin, not usage, so I'll concede your point.