this post was submitted on 26 Jan 2024
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You're not just reselling, so the doctrine doesn't apply.
By selling the bedicked shoe as Nike you are implying that Nike has made this "offensive" shoe and are selling it.
If you do lie to the buyer that it was a brand new Nike shoe, it'd be the concern of the sales contract between you and the buyer, and trademark law.
I'll call it
"Brand new shoes by Nike"
And add a disclaimer
"This is not brand new shoes from Nike".
Do you think it will protect me from Nike?