this post was submitted on 22 Apr 2025
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Wouldn't it be a derivative of oligarchy? Fascism doesn't care about the free market, only the well being of those at the top. You could argue oligarchy is a derivative of capitalism, but I don't think they're synonymous.
Couple things, here:
"Oligarchy" is a nebulous, catch-all term for any system where only a few have any power. It could apply to many systems, but itself isn't one. Nobody sets out to "do oligarchy," nor is oligarchy itself a system in and of itself.
There's no such thing as a "free market." In Capitalism, the state is under the control of Capitalists. These Capitalists use the state as they wish, regulations in Capitalism are used primarily to empower the largest firms and shut out competition.
In analyzing those aspects, we need to analyze where the systems we think of as "fascism" arise. Nazi Germany, fascist Italy, etc were all the results of dire crisis, and the state aligned with Private Capital in extremely brutal manners to root out opposition and protect itself. The conditions for arising and the system in place were all Capitalist in nature.
You using private capital as synonymous with powerful people? Rich people to tend to be powerful, but they're not the only ones.
And are you saying the treaty of versailles and it's fallout were part of the conditions for fascism, and were capitalist in nature?
I'm not using it as synonymous with powerful people, fascism has always been tied to private capital. As I already said, oligarchy isn't really any one thing, just like economy isn't. Fascism specifically is entirely a product of Capitalist decay, or, rather, is Capitalism when in decay and needs to rescue itself.
The inter-Ally debts causing the allies to squeeze Germany ever-further via reparations in order to pay their debts back to the US was a part of the rise of fascism, but not the only one. There was also rising labor organizing, a need for forced labor via colonial expansion, and more. It's more complex and nuanced than that.