this post was submitted on 01 Mar 2024
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No. If someone is telling you that Apple is doing that, they are lying to you. Demand proof, because no one can provide that. Because Apple is not doing that, and if they’re telling you they are, they are lying.
Until it's proven the data is E2E encrypted, it's a fair assumption it can be read by a 3rd party, either now or in the future. E2EE is the only proof that matters, everything else is just a corporate "trust me bro".
While I get the initial claim that proof is necessary, your argument is self-evident as well.
Nobody can provide proof does not mean its not true, just that its not proven. Its very suspicious that I got this notification the exact second I wrote the text and no other notifications for days before and after.
It is statistically very likely that someone or something triggered this in that moment. Either on the phone through siri for example who is supposed to select apps by usage, in the chat app (unlikely because open source) or in the notification provider, as mentioned by another commenter.
So you admit that you can’t back up your claims. Don’t expect reasonable or rational people to believe you. 
Are you joking? When did I claim anything? I said this happened, not that I know why.
From an article about a recent lawsuit
Notably, knowing keyboard language and monitoring tap locations allows for reconstruction of text the user types (as detailed in this article
I do think you are correct that Apple probably isn't actively keylogging every iOS device (just because there's easier ways with less legal concerns that ultimately get the same outcomes), but it's not like there's "no evidence".
If you demand proof to state they do, you should provide proof when stating they don't. It's not like Apple is the most trustworthy company in the world. With big tech it's always reasonable (definitely not certain) to assume they could be spying on your activity, and unless you are able to download your software source code, check it and compile it yourself, it's almost impossible to tell.
That's a burden of proof fallacy. 😕
It's no one's job to prove the opposite. The burden is on the initial claim.
The only thing we know without a proof is that they might be doing it. We don't have a proof they do it but we also don't have any proof they are incapable of doing so. A reasonable course of action would be to take precautions against it while not condemning them either, until they are either proven actually guilty or actively unwilling to up their security, which would also strongly imply the former.
Prove it