this post was submitted on 08 Mar 2025
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There's an anecdotal statistic going around historian circles, that if a revolution gets 1% of the country's population to participate in some capacity, then it succeeds.
What is the logic behind that?
More of an observation that most successful revolutions or protests so far in history, where we have data for, had at least this many people.
When I learned of this, it was used to make a point that 1% of a country is actually quite a lot of people when they get together.
Alright, so 3.4 million people in the US's case. That's over a thousand times as many people as the group who stormed the capitol. Could work, I'd say.