this post was submitted on 15 Jan 2024
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Without colonialism is it likely that there would have been "enough" wealth in Western Europe to complete primitive accumulation, enough capital to kick off capitalism as we know it? (lemmygrad.ml)
submitted 9 months ago* (last edited 9 months ago) by [email protected] to c/[email protected]
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My hunch is yes, because of how successful English agrarian capitalism was early on... but likely more slowly?

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