this post was submitted on 13 Apr 2024
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Hmm, I remember hearing that the vast majority of biblical scholars and historians are in general pretty sure he was a real (normal) person. Is that not true?
That's been the assumption, but there's surprisingly little actual evidence of him existing. The first bits of writing that seem to mention him are from a century after he supposedly lived. We also have no evidence that the NT contains eyewitness accounts, but we do have limited evidence that it might not be.
In short, we don't really know either way.
I don’t know. That’s why I asked. Is there an actual proof of this? Can you cite this?